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GK Indian Constitution for Competitive Exams

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Q :  

In which of the following is not a fundamental right?

(A) right to education

(B) right to equality

(C) right to Freedom

(D) right to property

Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The right to property is not a Fundamental Right but it is a constitutional right. In the original Constitution, the right to property was listed as a fundamental right.


Q :  

Who was appointed to the post of Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

(A) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(B) Dr. B. N. Rao

(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D) None of these

Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

B. N. Rau was appointed the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly in formulating the Indian Constitution in 1946. He was responsible for the general structure of the democratic framework of the Constitution and prepared its initial draft in February 1948.


Q :  

Who has been given the right to hear about fundamental rights?

(A) Supreme Court

(B) High Court

(C) Prime Minister `

(D) Supreme Court and High Court

Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

All people, irrespective of race, religion, caste, or sex, have been given the right to move the Supreme Court and the High Courts to enforce their fundamental rights. Seven categories of Fundamental Rights are covered by Articles 12-35. Part III of the Indian Constitution talks about Fundamental Rights.


Q :  

Who looks after the day-to-day administration of Union Territories?

(A) Governor

(B) President

(C) Union Home Minister

(D) State Home Minister

Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

apply to union territories as it refers specifically to Territories of India. The executive power of the Union (i.e. union of states only) rests with President of India. The President of India is also the chief administrator of union territories as per Article 239.


Q :  

When the states were reorganized on the basis of language?

(A) 1947

(B) 1951

(C) 1956

(D) 1966

Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The reorganization of states on a linguistic basis was done in 1956. THE STATES REORGANISATION ACT, 1956: The reorganization of the states was demanded many times after independence. There were financial, economic and administrative, and regional language issues.


Q :  

In which article of the constitution there is a provision for a joint sitting of both the houses?

(A) 108

(B) 110

(C) 173

(D) 166

Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

There are two exceptions when a joint sitting cannot be summoned. They are for the following bills:


Constitution Amendment Bill: According to Article 368, the Constitution can be amended only by a 2/3rd majority in both Houses. There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of a disagreement between both Houses.

Money Bill (Article 110): As per the Constitution, money bills require the Lok Sabha’s approval only. 


Even if the Rajya Sabha does not pass the money bill within 14 days, the bill is considered passed by both Houses after 14 days is over.

The Rajya Sabha can make recommendations to the Bill which the Lok Sabha is not required to accept.

Thus, in the case of a money bill, the necessity of a joint sitting does not arise.


Q :  

Advocate General of the State is appointed for the period of:

(A) 5 years

(B) 6 years

(C) Decided by the President

(D) No fix tenure

Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Advocate General of State is appointed by the Governor. There is no fixed term for the office of the Advocate General of State. The Constitution does not contain the procedure for its removal.


Q :  

Which one is NOT correct regarding the Advocate General of State?

(A) He has the right of audience in any Court in the State Legislative

(B) The Advocate General is the first law officer of a State.

(C) He receives the Pay as per fixation by Government

(D) He has the voting right in the state legislature.

Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

State Advocate General: The State Advocate General is the chief legal advisor of the state government. He is the primary counsel for the state government in the High Court for the state. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor and shall receive such remuneration as may be fixed by the Governor. Hence statement 2 is correct. He is a part of the state executive. He is appointed by the Governor of the state. He holds his office according to the wishes of the Governor. He has the right to be heard in any court of the state. Statement 1 is correct. Eligibility: He must be an Indian citizen. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court. Powers and functions: Advising the Government of India in legal matters. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the Governor. They have the right to be heard in all courts of the State as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the State Legislature without voting. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. He appears on behalf of the State Government in the High Court in all matters which relate to the State Government.


Q :  

Which article states that each state shall have an Advocate General?

(A) Article 194

(B) Article 177

(C) Article 197

(D) Article 165

Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 165: Advocate General for the State

The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate General for the State.


Q :  

Advocate General of the State submits his resignation to:

(A) Chief Judge of high court of the state

(B) Governor of the respective states

(C) Governor

(D) Chief Minister of the state

Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the governor.


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