Indian Polity GK for SSC Exams

Rajesh Bhatia4 months ago 706 Views Join Examsbookapp store google play
NEW Indian Polity GK for SSC Exams
Q :  

We have adopted Parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how is our model different from that model?

The British Parliament is supreme or sovereign so far as law-making is concerned, but in India the power of Parliament to make laws is limited.

In India, cases relating to the constitutionality of an amendment of an Act of Parliament are referred to a Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British Parliamentary system. However, it never replicated the British system and differs in the following respects: Britain India British monarchy India has a republican system British system is based on the principle of sovereignty of Parliament Parliament is not supreme in India, enjoys limited and restricted powers because of a written constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights. In Britain, the Prime Minister must be a member of the lower house of Parliament (House of Commons). In India, the Prime Minister can be a member of either House of Parliament. The British system is based on the principle of sovereignty of Parliament. Cases relating to the constitutionality of an amendment act can be referred by the Supreme Court to its Constitutional Bench. The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, inserted various articles in the Constitution, directly and indirectly, curtailing the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to review the constitutionality of laws.


Q :  

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

The N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar Committee suggested that a Minister and a Secretary should be solely designated to carry out and promote administrative reforms.

On the basis of the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, the Department of Personnel was created in 1970 and placed under the charge of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Gopalaswami Ayyangar Committee suggested that a Minister and a Secretary should be designated solely to pursue and promote the subject of administrative reform. (2) In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966 and placed under the charge of the Prime Minister.


Q :  

Consider the following statements:

There is no law in India that prevents candidates from contesting from three constituencies in a single Lok Sabha election.

In the 1991 Lok Sabha election, Mr Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.

As per the current rules, if a candidate contests from multiple constituencies in a single Lok Sabha election, his party should bear the cost of by-elections in the constituencies he vacates provided he wins from all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 1 and 3

(D) 2 and 3


Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

As per Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies (more constituencies were allowed till 1996 when the RPA was amended to fix the limit of two constituencies). Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. In 1991, Haryana Deputy Chief Minister Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha seats, Sikar, Rohtak and Ferozepur as well as the Ghirai Assembly seat. He lost all of them. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. In such cases, the expenses of by-elections are borne by the Election Commission of India. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.


Q :  

Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the ‘Right to Privacy’ protected?

(A) Article 15

(B) Article 19

(C) Article 21

(D) Article 29


Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Indian Supreme Court with a nine-judge bench headed by JS Khehar ruled on 24 August 2017 that the right to privacy is a fundamental right for Indian citizens under Article 21 of the Constitution and additionally under Part III rights.


Q :  

Consider the following statements:

The right to the city is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.

The right to the city gives every city dweller the right to reclaim public spaces in the city and to participate in public spaces.

The right to the city means that the state cannot deprive the unauthorised settlements of any public service or facility.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 3

(C) 1 and 2

(D) 2 and 3


Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The right to the city as a human right. It is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. Many countries do not explicitly prove that there is an "agreed" right to the city, they (international organizations) are only proposing to do so, and so the first statement may be false. Right to the city and resources The right to the city is much more than the individual freedom to have access to urban resources. It is the right to transform the city by changing itself. Furthermore, it is a common right rather than an individual one because this transformation inevitably depends on the exercise of collective power to reshape the processes of urbanization. The right to the city means "the right of all inhabitants, present and future, permanent and temporary, to use, occupy and produce just, inclusive and sustainable cities, defined as a common good for a full and decent life." The original definition of the right to the city goes beyond basic human rights and access to resources. It is a renewed access to urban life, which empowers city residents to shape the city as they see fit through rights of participation and active civic engagement. Hence statement 2 is correct. In 1996, the Istanbul Declaration and Habitat Agenda reinforced the responsibilities of all governments for the provision of adequate housing, as exemplified by the creation of their ministries or agencies, their allocation of resources, and their policies, programmes and projects. It also stated that the provision of the right to adequate housing requires joint action by government organisations, communities and local authorities as well as partner organisations and institutions of the international community.


Q :  

In the context of India, consider the following statements:

Judicial custody means that the accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is kept in the lock-up of the police station and not in a jail.

During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case cannot interrogate the suspect without the permission of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

A person in police custody has to appear before the concerned magistrate within 24 hours, while a person in judicial custody is kept in jail until a bail order is obtained from the court.


Q :  

In the context of India, consider the following statements:

When a prisoner presents sufficient grounds, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner, as it becomes a matter of his right.

State governments have their own rules for releasing a prisoners on parole.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Parole can also be denied to a prisoner if the competent authority is satisfied that releasing the convict is not in the interest of society. Provision of parole is a privilege/concession but not a right of any convicted prisoner. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.


Q :  

At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency for ensuring effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

(A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(B) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

(C) Ministry of Rural Development

(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs


Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The correct answer is Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The Forest Rights Act, India or the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act is also known by other names such as the Tribal Rights Act or the Tribal Land Act.


Q :  

By whom is the ordinance issued by the governor approved?

(A) Ministers of the Legislative Council

(B) Legislature

(C) President

(D) All of these


Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

When the State Legislature is not in session and the Governor considers it necessary to have a law, then the Governor can promulgate ordinances. These ordinances are submitted to the State Legislature at its next session.


Q :  

Who served as the 14th President of India?

(A) Pranab Mukherjee

(B) Ram Nath Kovind

(C) Pratibha Patil

(D) P.J Abdul Kalam


Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Shri Ram Nath Kovind was sworn in as the 14th President of India on 25 July, 2017. A lawyer by profession, he had been the Governor of the State of Bihar before he took over the highest constitutional office.


Showing page 2 of 3

    Choose from these tabs.

    You may also like

    About author

    Rajesh Bhatia

    A Writer, Teacher and GK Expert. I am an M.A. & M.Ed. in English Literature and Political Science. I am highly keen and passionate about reading Indian History. Also, I like to mentor students about how to prepare for a competitive examination. Share your concerns with me by comment box. Also, you can ask anything at linkedin.com/in/rajesh-bhatia-7395a015b/.

    Read more articles

      Report Error: Indian Polity GK for SSC Exams

    Please Enter Message
    Error Reported Successfully